This may be a corny question that's been doing the rounds since at least Marcion's day ... but what are we to make of the LORD's agency in destroying the enemies of Israel?
So, for instance, Ex. 12:29 - "And the LORD smote all the first-born in the land of Egypt."
It occurs to me that the desire to affirm the historical accuracy of the witness of the Old Testament only serves to highlight the difficulties here. Of course, even if we deny the historicity of the text we still have a startling transition to make. Or do we?
So, questions.
These people who got smote. Did they matter in God's eyes? How does God view them now? This sounds a rather naive question ... not one that get's asked in polite theological society. But hey, why do you think this blog is anonymous?
What about the comparison that can be made in the Biblical material itself, even in the Old Testament itself? Compare Ruth, Jonah or some of the hope of Deutero-Isaiah (45:22-25). If we claim a developing conception, or revelation, of God's hopes for all the earth, that simply leaves open the question of what use we the 'older' material is to us in our 'developed' state.
You'd think I would have come across something in Childs or Watson which would address these seemingly basic questions, and I'm sure they and others must have helpful material somewhere ...
1 comment:
Ok. Option 1.
It's not nice, but it's what it says.
Gen. 6:5-7
The LORD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every intention of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. And the LORD was sorry that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him to his heart. So the LORD said, "I will blot out man whom I have created from the face of the land, man and animals and creeping things and birds of the heavens, for I am sorry that I have made them."
It's pretty clear, isn't it? God believes in total depravity (except for Noah!). These humans deserved to get what they did. The question arises, are we any different?
The further question arises, did they deserve this? Think about this. Was everyone wicked in this way. Children and all. No doubt there were young people growing up in that society who had never known love and respect but only abuse. They got it in the neck too.
Are we prepared to read this literally? How else can we? What do we loose if we cease to read it literally?
Some more: back to the Exodus passage, 11:4-7
So Moses said, "Thus says the LORD: About midnight I will go out in the midst of Egypt, 5 and every firstborn in the land of Egypt shall die, from the firstborn of Pharaoh who sits on his throne, even to the firstborn of the slave girl who is behind the handmill, and all the firstborn of the cattle. 6 There shall be a great cry throughout all the land of Egypt, such as there has never been, nor ever will be again. 7 But not a dog shall growl against any of the people of Israel, either man or beast, that you may know that the LORD makes a distinction between Egypt and Israel.
Now, don't get me wrong, Israel was being treated abominably ... and this passage offers hope to those suffering horrible oppression. In that case we want the distinction to be made.
But what of the first-born? What had they done?
Perhaps there is here another example of culture relative morality. There is a sense of being morally responsible for the actions of another in this story - whether it is Pharoah acting for his nation, Moses acting for Israel, or the first-born suffering for the sins of the nation/Pharoah. Do we understand this in our culture at all?
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